• PunnyName@lemmy.world
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      3
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      1 year ago

      To which authority? Because I know the milk conglomerate has been staunchly fighting for that very definition.

      The lack of consent is more viable as a disqualifier.

      • Turun@feddit.de
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        5
        ·
        1 year ago

        I think the main distinction is lactose. And/or the proteins that are present in milk.

        While oat milk and consorts can be used in a lot of use cases it’s not a one to one replacement and it’s dishonest to claim it is.