• Fedegenerate@lemmynsfw.com
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    1 year ago

    Not necessarily: consider a string of '0’s and ‘1’s’ both infinite and random.

    011101010101000…

    No matter how long you look, you’ll never find a ‘2’. Same with the multiverse, not all things need to exist.

    • LouNeko@lemmy.world
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      1 year ago

      I was about to make a comment about, how a double pendelum can swing in an infinite amount of unpredictable ways, none of which will suddenly turn it into a car. But I like your analogy so much better.

  • Archmage Azor@lemmy.world
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    1 year ago

    Maybe in the sense that the people there haven’t thought of the theory itself. But one universe can’t affect if a multiverse exists or not, one universe would just be part of a whole

  • MüThyme@lemmy.world
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    1 year ago

    I don’t really understand why, but this seems to be a common misunderstanding of the multiverse theory.

    All it says is that every possible universe exists, so it’s not at all required that everything you can think of exists, just everything permitted by physics. Possible is the keyword here, and you can still have an infinity of universes even if you restrict what is possible.

    I’m no expert on the subject, but as I understand it there are generally two types of multiverse theory. The one where you have infinite universes all with the same physical laws, but every unique possibility under those laws exists in the multiverse. And the one where every possible variation on the laws of physics exist (generally talking about different coupling constants rather than entirely different laws). It’s entirely reasonable that both types are one in the same.

    In either case, it wouldn’t really be consistent for there to be a universe where the multiverse doesn’t exist, unless it is the only universe and there is no multiverse at all.

    • bstix@feddit.dk
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      1 year ago

      infinite universes all with the same physical laws, but every unique possibility

      What makes different possibilities exist if the laws are the same? Is there a random function somewhere in the laws of physics?

      • fkn@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        You can combine the same atoms into different larger elements. It’s like that. The same physical laws, but the combinations are infinite (or at least uncountable).

        The other concept is that the laws are different, but not true infinite combinations within reach.

        Or both.

        • bstix@feddit.dk
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          1 year ago

          What combines the atoms differently when the laws of combining atoms are the same?

            • bstix@feddit.dk
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              1 year ago

              The question is if the laws of physics are deterministic or not. If the rules are the same, then the result would be the same and all the universes in that case would be identifical.

              The multi universe theory assumes randomness, undeterministic physics or that every universe has different initial properties.

              • fkn@lemmy.world
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                1 year ago

                Oh. You literally have no idea what these words mean. Got it.

      • MüThyme@lemmy.world
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        1 year ago

        Different arrangements would do it, or you could think of it very loosely as the “if you made different decisions in each” kind of thing. Events/history is different, essentially.

        On your idea of a “random function” yes, pretty much everything at a fundamental level appears to be probabilistic to some level. Quantum theory cannot in most cases predict the exact outcome of an experiment, just the probability of different outcomes.

    • FelipeFelop@feddit.uk
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      1 year ago

      We’ll call it Pussyphobics Paradox.

      “Given an infinite number of universes comprising a multiverse, at least one will have conditions that render a multiverse impossible”

  • kairo79 @lemmy.ml
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    1 year ago

    How can there be a Universe in a Multiverse that’s not inside the Multiverse?