• zaphod@feddit.de
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      10 months ago

      I’m countering with a lave-linge which is masculine, now where’s the boomer joke?

  • Dasnap@lemmy.world
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    10 months ago

    What exactly does gender achieve in a language? Is English missing out on any nuance? Is it literally thinking about nouns as male or female, or is it just a weird name for the concept? Who decides gender when a new noun is made? What about borrowed words from other languages? Do you sound stupid if you speak French without using it, or are you just a language hipster?

    Language, dude…

    • amio@kbin.social
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      10 months ago

      What exactly does gender achieve in a language? Is English missing out on any nuance?

      Sort of. Grammatical gender and the interplay with grammatical case (the “role” of a noun in a sentence) allows some extra meaning to be packed in. For example, German has 3 genders and 4 cases leading to 12 different contexts for nouns to be in. Many of those have their own conjugation patterns, and separate words for the articles “a/the”.
      That can, theoretically, allow meaning of the type “whose what did what to whom” to be obvious or pieced together in a sentence, whereas translating it into English you might need to spell it out, lose it, or rely on context.

      In practice, a lot of that sort of information is often redundant or clear from context anyway, and only matters if you’re being clever or succinct. My German is shit, so I will not try to provide examples.

      It’s also worth pointing out that it’s a naturally occurring feature, likely arisen by accident.

      Is it literally thinking about nouns as male or female, or is it just a weird name for the concept?

      It is mostly just a weird name. Some of it makes sense along (social) gender lines, much of it makes no sense at all. This thread is full of good examples of counterintuitive noun genders in all kinds of languages.

      Who decides gender when a new noun is made? What about borrowed words from other languages?

      The speakers of the language, collectively, usually with some disagreement, trial and error. Borrowing depends: a gendered noun borrowed into a non-gendered language would just slip in there. In the reverse case, people would just arrive at some gender for it arbitrarily or based on similar words, what gender any “parts” of the term might be if translated, or whatever other method. There’s no correct answer.

      Do you sound stupid if you speak French without using it, or are you just a language hipster?

      Quite likely. There’s no “without it” in gendered languages, it is a more or less fundamental part of the noun and the language, like how certain nouns and verbs are just different in English. Dropping random grammar and syntax from English would just be “doing it wrong”, ranging from cute foreign accent quirks to Ralph Wiggum’s cave-dwelling ancestor.

      Of course, fucking up is unavoidable when learning languages, and most people will give you a lot of leeway due to being foreign. Maybe not everywhere in France, though…

    • olosta@lemmy.world
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      10 months ago

      English weirdly use feminine for ships, so think of it like that. But no it doesn’t achieve much.

      I don’t think it change the way we think about objects much, but probably unconsciously yes. For example, France itself is feminine and seeing some caricature personifying as a dude always feels weird.

      Usage dictates the gender. And some recent words are more or less controversial: gameboy, wifi, COVID, Nutella…

      When I think about the gender of a word I will usually derive it from a broader category. But that’s not always obvious, for example Gameboy is a game console (feminine) but the words game and boy are masculine. COVID is a disease (feminine) but also a virus (masculine). And in the meme a washing machine is a machine (feminine).

      You can’t not use gender since french doesn’t have neutral pronouns. But I don’t think it’s frowned upon for a non native speaker to make this kind of mistakes.

      • tigeruppercut@lemmy.zip
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        10 months ago

        Old English used gender, and there are a few vestiges of it left in modern English. A couple adjectives can still use it (blond man, blonde woman), and a few nouns are still in use (actor vs actress). Some of those nouns have basically fallen out of use in the last few decades, like how pretty much no one uses comedienne anymore.

    • Chiwiu@lemmy.world
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      10 months ago

      You sound odd, like a child or someone not fluent if you don’t use our misuse the genders of words.

      That being said, as native Spanish that lived in the UK for a while, I noticed that genders and verb forms are useful for providing more context when talking.

      Cannot think of specific examples now, but in general in a phrase if you don’t hear a word or don’t know the meaning, it is easier to guess it because the rest of the phrase is constructed around the gender and more complex verbal forms.

    • JeyNessuno@lemmy.dbzer0.com
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      10 months ago

      You can’t speak french without using it, because the gender of a word changes the gender of particles attached. Think as if in English there was a male “the” and a female “the”, like “mthe” and “fthe”. You can’t just not choose on of those to talk about fthe sun!

      Gender in nouns exists to reduce ambiguity (in general, complexity reduces ambiguity), especially in times before widespread dictionaries or even the internet.

      More ancient languages with more widespread use tend to be even more complex: think of latin, where particles are inserted within the word depending on their function in the phrase. It’s as if in English to say “I go to work” we’d say “I go workt”, but to say “this is for work” we’d say “this is workf” Again, more complex to be less ambiguous

    • zaphod@feddit.de
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      10 months ago

      Gender from french genre, latin genus, means category and that’s all it is, a category system, with confusing category names and no real rules for which word belongs to which category. There’s nothing masculine, feminine or neuter about words, nothing “sexual” or whatever, otherwise every person would be a woman because the word for person (from latin persona) is feminine in a lot of european languages, or French and German people would have to think really different about stuff like tables because in French it’s “feminine” and in German it’s “masculine”. Btw, looking at English adjectives with French origin they almost always are the feminine version, like feminine or masculine. Some people think there is a hidden sexual meaning though and they come up with lots of different systems for gender neutral language, stuff like latinx.

    • joel_feila@lemmy.world
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      10 months ago

      on borrowing we can look at nouns borrowed into Spanish. They take the word change any sounds in native language to match Spanish sounds. Then they just slap on a gender ending. Yes it just what ever catches on. Which means we could have lived in world with potata.

    • force@lemmy.world
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      10 months ago

      Russian speakers might say the same thing about things that exist in English but not Russian like articles (the words “a”/“an” and “the”), Afrikaans speakers may say the same thing about verb conjugation at all, Chinese speakers may say the same thing about tense, Japanese speakers may say the same thing about having a separate present & future tense. There is a good explanation here or two already, but language features that seem “useless” or “complex” to us are important in other languages and are there for a purpose. Every language has features that would make others question it.

    • thisisbutaname@discuss.tchncs.de
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      10 months ago

      Speaking as a gendered language user (Italian) it is sometimes weird.

      For example, car is feminine but our name for an off-road vehicle is masculine, as is the word for truck. Since you have to apply the gender of the noun to verbs, articles and adjectives, which one do you use when talking about your SUV? Feminine because it’s a car or masculine because it’s an offroader?

      For borrowed words there’s usually a consensus on gender that forms over time. Sometimes a borrowed word inherits its gender from the translation of that word that fell out of use. One example of this could be the word computer. An equivalent term exists in Italian (calcolatore) which fell out of use but gave it a definite gender, masculine.

    • vsis@feddit.cl
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      10 months ago

      I’m not an expert. But I believe it is something to do with information redundancy.

      If you mishear a word but surrounding words must match gender and number, you may reconstruct the misheard word.

      As a native spanish speaker, I don’t think of the actual sexuality of objects, it’s just a characteristic of the word that should match other words in the sentence. For example the word screen (pantalla) is femenine, and the word monitor (monitor) is masculine. So when I see my monitor I don’t think of an actual female or male object. But the nouns should match adjectives gender, so if someone says “broken monitor” (monitor roto) or “broken screen” (pantalla rota) I have this kind of redundancy if I misheard a word.

      But I’m not an expert of linguistics. Don’t quote me.

      • Starbuck@lemmy.world
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        10 months ago

        This sounds right. I think it’s just a hint for listeners for what the noun might be, and it happens to align to the male/female genders.

  • Lath@kbin.social
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    10 months ago

    Romance fans will tell you the French language is the adoration of beauty.
    The British will tell you that the french taste for beauty is the same as their taste for cheese: it stinks.

  • Teon@kbin.social
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    10 months ago

    Changing genders, when not speaking about a gender, is antiquated and should be removed from language rules.
    In Thai men use different words than women. Men use Krub, women use Ka/kha, to end a sentence.
    In Russia the wife has a different last name than the husband. Like, Igor Sechin, Yulia Sechina.

    • ThoGot@lemm.ee
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      In Russia the wife has a different last name than the husband. Like, Igor Sechin, Yulia Sechina.

      Also when the subject of a sentence is female, the verb sometimes has a female form.

      For example
      He went / Он шол
      She went / Она шла

    • SubArcticTundra@lemmy.ml
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      10 months ago

      The Russian thing is the same in Czech, it’s actually set in law iirc. Also for some random reason when people talk in past tense you’re able to tell the gender of the speaker

      • Maultasche@lemmy.world
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        10 months ago

        Luckily, for washing machine it’s the same (female) but with others like sun, moon, or table we’re not so lucky. And German having three genders for words and french only two often makes things more complicated.

              • Arlaerion@lemmy.ml
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                10 months ago

                There are some, but many nouns you just have to remember. Diminuitives are neutral, living beings commonly use their biological gender. There are many exeptions, but knowing the origin of them helps (e.g. girl -> das Mädchen is a dimiuitive of maid -> die Maid)

                It helps reading books or watching shows/movies in german to get a feel for the gender of nouns.

      • SubArcticTundra@lemmy.ml
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        10 months ago

        Also German is quite systematic in its naming of things (surprise surprise), so specific names have the same gender as the more ‘generic’ root word for the thing

  • vsis@feddit.cl
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    10 months ago

    Spanish enters the room: words have gender, but there are special cases where the definite article switches gender.

    “El hacha roja/Las hachas rojas”, “El agua fría/Las aguas frías”

    Also, some words may have both genders:

    “El computador/La computadora”

    • GregorGizeh@lemmy.zip
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      Disclaimer: this is terrible advice if you are trying to actually learn the proper grammar, don’t follow it.

      That being said, you can get by in everyday situations perfectly fine using “De” for anything, especially if you have a foreign accent people will forgive you.

      De junge, de Mädchen, de Baby, de Tisch, de Stuhl, de Feuerzeuggas-Nachfüllkartusche. People will understand.

      • volvoxvsmarla @lemm.ee
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        That’s so true. Or just guess. Like, for real, no one cares. Besides your Goethe Institute examiner. Das Tisch, die Mädchen, der Banane. Doesn’t matter. My father has awful, awful German, despite living here for 35ish years, and his whole job is communicating with people and he made a huge career despite having no clue of grammar and buying sweet red Erdbeben in the supermarket.

        I also adore foreigners from different countries speaking in completely broken German to one another and somehow being able to figure out what the other one was saying and having a blast. Admittedly, with the rise of English, this has become much rarer. But it just shows you that language is so much more than just grammar and vocabulary.

  • aggelalex@lemmy.world
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    10 months ago

    It’s neuter in greek, even though “machine” is feminine, cause the greek word is like “washer” instead of “washing machine”. Although I think you have better things to ponder about when writing greek.

      • NABDad@lemmy.world
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        10 months ago

        We put it in your brain while you were sleeping last night.

        Don’t worry, we’ll take it out later. We just needed someplace to store it for a bit.

  • Mr_Blott@lemmy.world
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    10 months ago

    Me speaking to a French guy last week -

    “We’ve just been the the musée de l’automobile in Mulhouse”

    “Sorry, where?”

    “Mulhouse”

    “Where?”

    “Mulhouse”

    "Aaaaaah I see! It’s pronounced [pronounces Mulhouse *exactly the same FUCKING way I just pronounced it]

    😂 Happens very regularly

    • Kecessa@sh.itjust.works
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      10 months ago

      To add to what that other person said, when you grow up your brain gets used to hearing the sounds common to your accent and you can even stop hearing the difference between certain sounds when someone speaks your language with a different accent!

      In Quebec french there’s a big difference between the sound of “pré” and “prè” that doesn’t exist with some of the french accents in France and they’re unable to recreate that difference and might even be unable to hear it!

      • force@lemmy.world
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        10 months ago

        “Pré” and “prè” consistently sound distinctly different in most, dare I say almost all, accents in mainland France. The difference is the same with basically all words spelled with those vowels. “Ê” also sounds like a long “è” in most words for most people. “e” also sounds like “é” when before silent letters except for “t”, and sounds like “è” when before multiple letters or before “x” or before silent “t” or if it’s the last sound except for open monosyllabic words, and it sounds special or is silent elsewhere. “-ent” is always silent too. Obviously doesn’t apply to “en/em”, also special exception for “-er/-es”.

          • force@lemmy.world
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            10 months ago

            The vowel sounds in “près” and “pré” are very clearly different, and the sound in “prêt” changes from “è” to “é” when in liaison because it always sounds like “è” at the end of words (and separately, in closed syllables) and always sounds like “é” in open syllables otherwise (liaison triggers a change in the syllable structure which changes the vowel here). This does not contradict what I said. You said “(pr)é” and “(pr)è” sound the same, nothing about “(pr)ê”.

          • SorryQuick@lemmy.ca
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            10 months ago

            Maybe not in proper Quebecois, but I feel like most people here use the é/è sounds interchangably. Take “Il prétend” for example. It feels like that accent could be either é or è and people would still pronounce it the same.

      • Zink@programming.dev
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        Yep. I took a language psych class in college, and we saw some examples of this that were crazy, especially being one of the people that can’t hear the difference.

        I can’t remember the example, but just imagine somebody saying the same word to you twice and then a third party telling you the first person just said two different words.

    • tiredofsametab@kbin.run
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      10 months ago

      Just because your ears can’t hear a difference doesn’t mean that there is none. I deal with this a lot when Japanese ask me for help and can’t differentiate between certain sounds

      • force@lemmy.world
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        10 months ago

        Yeah in Japanese a few consonant sounds like ‘r’ and ‘l’ sounds or ‘h’/‘f’ or ‘s’/‘th’ or ‘z’/‘ð’ are basically heard as the same (an American ‘r’ might even sound like a weird ‘w’ to Japanese), and English has around 17 to 24 distinctive vowel sounds generally (based on quality) while Japanese has 5 plus vowel length and tones (pitch accent). As a result of the phonetic differences between the languages, it can be hard to hear or recreate the differences in sound quality (especially when it’s Japanese on the speaking/listening end, but Americans also sure have a terrible time trying to make Japanese sounds like the “n” or “r” or “ch”/“j” or “sh”/“zh” or “f” or “u”. they just perceive it as the same as the closest sounds in English)

        • tigeruppercut@lemmy.zip
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          10 months ago

          Wait, how does ch/j or sh differ from the English sounds? And what words use zh? I don’t think I’ve seen that romaji

          • force@lemmy.world
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            They are all palatal sibilants in Japanese, while in English they’re palato-alveolar sibilants. Very hard difference for English speakers to hear, but the distinction is common enough to exist in many languages. And the “ch”/“j”/“sh”/“zh” sounds I speak of are just common variations of “t”/“d”/“s”/“z” that occur before “i” (they are spelled si -> shi, zi -> zhi/ji, ti -> chi, di -> ji).

            Usually “zhi” isn’t spelled out in Rōmaji though, actually it’s often spelled “ji” even when they’re sometimes pronounced differently (so “zi” and “di” end up being spelled the same, perhaps confusingly, but most people pronounce them the same so it doesn’t really matter). But I think pronouncing them differently is more of an archaic, obsolete, ot dialectal thing anyways.

            The “h” in “hi” also sounds different.

            The spelling also changes in the same way before a syllable that starts with a “y” sound, e.g. syu -> shu or dyo -> jo.

            Before “u” some consonants also change (hu -> fu, tu -> tsu, du -> dzu).

            These sound changes don’t occur for all speakers/dialects, some don’t have a “shi” and just say “si” for example, but they are the most common and standard I believe.

        • tiredofsametab@kbin.run
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          10 months ago

          English also doesn’t have gemination (small tsu) which does make a difference in Japanese as well. Hearing that in very quick Japanese for words I don’t know can still be different. Same with vowel length. Once you know the word, it doesn’t matter as much how someone says it, but when it’s new vocab and the speaker is very quick, it can be tough.

          • tigeruppercut@lemmy.zip
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            10 months ago

            I didn’t know the technical term gemination for っ, appreciate it. Can’t it manifest somewhat similarly to stops/plosives though? English doesn’t generally use those followed by the same consonant within the same word, but the phrase “port ten” is almost like the t consonant in itte, but with less of a pause in the middle. Contrast it with the word “portend” and you can see that we have a little bit more of a pause in “port ten”.

            • tiredofsametab@kbin.run
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              10 months ago

              When I say “port ten” and ポッテン (with or without the long ‘o’) it seems I’m doing something different. Maybe a glottal stop and hard attack? I’m not actually a linguist though, so I could be very wrong.

    • Ethalis@jlai.lu
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      10 months ago

      No offense intended since I’m fully incapable of pronouncing tons of English words properly (fuck “squirrel” specifically), but as a Frenchman who has lived near Mulhouse for a few years and interacted with a lot of foreign students, what you said probably wasn’t close to being the exact same as that guy

  • ImplyingImplications@lemmy.ca
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    10 months ago

    If it ends with an ‘e’ it’s probably feminine. Moustache is feminine. There’s a handful of exceptions that are easy to remember